For n agents with additive binary valuations (every item value is either 0 or 1), an "EF minus 2" allocation is also EF1, so the answer is…

For n agents with additive binary valuations (every item value is either 0 or 1), an "EF minus 2" allocation is also EF1, so the answer is yes.

Open the “Contiguous EF1 allocation” section on Wikipedia →

Source: List of unsolved problems in fair division (CC BY-SA 4.0)